Learning ccna: CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0

Learning ccna: CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0
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ccna-exploration-1-final-exam-answers

CCNA Exploration 4 – FINAL Exam Answers(D) Version 4.0

1. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
• Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
• Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
• The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
• All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
• The username and password are not configured correctly.
• The authentication method is not configured correctly.
• The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
• The vtys are not configured correctly.

3. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?
• The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
• The TCP/IP information is used by DHCP clients that are configured to request a configuration from R1.
• The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
• The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

4. What is a major characteristic of a worm?
• malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
• tricks users into running the infected software
• a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
• exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

5. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?
• The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
• The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
• The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
• Port address translation is in effect.

6. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?
• Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.
• Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.
• Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.
• Company A is closer to the service provider.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
• It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.
• It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.
• It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
• It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output shown? (Choose two.)
• This network is experiencing congestion.
• The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
• Data is not flowing in this network.
• The network is discarding eligible packets.
• The DLCI is globally significant.

9. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
• Configure DHCP and static NAT.
• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
• Configure static NAT for all ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
• a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
• NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
• a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
• static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

11. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
• HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

12. An established company has recently transitioned from outsourced LAN support to a completely in-house staff. The outsourcing company is no longer in business, so no records are available. There are many user complaints about application speed and availability. What two considerations apply to this situation? (Choose two.)
• A network utilization baseline should quickly reveal application availability.
• A period of 24 to 48 hours should provide a sufficient baseline to track normal network activity.
• It is easier to start with monitoring all available data inputs on application servers, and then fine-tune to fewer variables along the way.
• The initial baseline results have little relevance to current values after the network has been modified or grown in usage.
• When it is practical, network administrators should attempt to automate the collection of performance data and stay away from manual collection.
• Creating a network baseline data helps determine device thresholds for alerting.

13. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?
• PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP
• HDLC with PAP
• HDLC with CHAP

14. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• application layer

15. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what are two instances when a static Frame Relay map should be used? (Choose two.)
• when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
• when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
• when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

16. Which three statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)
• Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
• One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.
• Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.
• There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
• Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.
• The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.

17. Which technology would provide the highest bandwidth connections between company sites at the lowest cost?
• broadband Internet site-to-site VPN connections
• satellite based network connections
• dedicated point-to-point circuits
• Frame Relay PVCs

18. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?
• improper LMI type
• interface reset
• PPP negotiation failure
• unplugged cable

19. What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

20. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
• Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
• Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
• ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
• Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
• The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.
• LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
• The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.
• The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.

22. Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?
• The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.
• The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.
• A “0” in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.
• A “1” in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.

23. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200

24 .A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four remote sites. What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?
• lower cost
• lower latency and jitter
• variable bandwidth capacity
• fewer physical router interfaces

25. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?
• proxy ARP
• CDP updates
• SNMP services
• RIP authentication

26. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
• show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
• show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
• show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
• show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

27. Which statement about a VPN is true?
• VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.
• DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.
• VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.
• Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
• Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
• Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
• Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
• Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .

29. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?
• The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.
• The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.
• The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.
• The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.

30. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)
• It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
• It defines a process for managing security violations.
• It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
• The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.
• It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.
• It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

31. Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The IP addresses are on different subnets.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
• Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

32. What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?
• All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.
• The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.
• All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.
• Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.

33. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
• use the copy tftp: flash: command
• boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
• telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
• boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes

34. A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
• The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
• The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
• The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

35. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?
• application
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical

36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
• interface fa0/0/0, inbound
• interface fa0/0/0, outbound
• interface fa0/0/1, inbound
• interface fa0/0/1, outbound

37. Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
• SSH is unable to pass through NAT.
• There are incorrect access control list entries.
• The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.
• The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.

38. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
• Encapsulation should of this inteface be changed to PPP.
• There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
• The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
• The IP address of S0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.

39. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?
• Source 192.168.1.2 – Destination 192.168.4.2
• Source 192.168.3.1 – Destination 192.168.3.2
• Source 192.168.2.1 – Destination 192.168.3.2
• Source 192.168.3.1 – Destination 192.168.4.2

40. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
• RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
• All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.
• RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.
• When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.

41. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?
• Wi-Fi
• WiMAX
• satellite
• Metro Ethernet

42. A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
• Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.
• Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.
• Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous weeks.
• Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

43. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a part of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco IOS software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done next to isolate this problem?
• From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.
• From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.
• From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco IOS software.
• From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

44. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?
• defines which addresses can be translated
• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses can be accessed from the inside network

45. A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches. Which statement applies to this situation?
• Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.
• Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.
• It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
• Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

46. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
• 10.1.1.2:1234
• 172.30.20.1:1234
• 172.30.20.1:3333
• 192.168.1.2:80

47. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
• Once a good password is created, do not change it.
• Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
• Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
• Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
• Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
• Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

48. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
• Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
• Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
• The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
• The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

49. Which two statements are true about IPv6? (Choose two.)
• Security options are build into IPv6.
• IPv6 addresses require less router overhead to process.
• IPv6 can only be configured on an interface that does not have IPv4 on it.
• There is no way to translate between IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses.
• When enabled on a router, IPv6 can automatically configure link-local IPv6 addresses on all interfaces.

50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
• The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
• The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
• The RIPng network command is not configured.
• The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.

51. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?
• demilitarized zone (DMZ)
• demarcation point
• local loop
• cloud

52. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1”. What is the problem?
• The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
• The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
• The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
• The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.

53. Which three functions are provided by the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
• map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
• provide error notification
• provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

54. Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
• IPCP
• CDPCP
• Multilink

55. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
• checksum
• digital certificates
• encapsulation
• encryption

CCNA Exploration 4 – FINAL Exam Answers(C) Version 4.0

1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment
• replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
• migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
• a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
• a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console

3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
• hold-down timers
• poison reverse
• spanning tree protocol
• time to live
• split horizon protocol

4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)
• CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
• The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
• SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
• SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols

5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a ‘Password Required but None Set’ message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?
• Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco

6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
• low processor overhead
• poison reverse
• routing loops
• split horizon
• shortest-path first calculations

7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
• The configuration register is set for 0x2100.
• The configuration register is set for 0x2101.
• The configuration register is set for 0x2102.
• The configuration register is set for 0x2142.
• Boot system commands are not configured.
• Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
• Nederst på formularen

8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)
• show ip interface
• show ip route
• show processes
• show running-config
• show cdp neighbor
• show access-lists

9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
• destination address and wildcard mask
• source address and wildcard mask
• subnet mask and wildcard mask
• access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999

10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
• most
• host
• all
• any
• some
• sum

11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
• 3 collision domains
• 3 broadcast domains
• 5 broadcast domains
• 9 collision domains
• 10 collision domains
• 13 collision domains

12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
• 192.168.16.63/27
• 192.168.16.158/27
• 192.168.16.192/27
• 192.168.16.113/30
• 192.168.16.145/30
• 192.168.16.193/30

13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• prevents Layer 2 loops
• prevents routing loops on a router
• creates smaller collision domains
• creates smaller broadcast domains
• allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?
• activates the OSPF neighboring process
• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
• provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
• streamlines and speeds up the convergence process

15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?
• Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
• Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
• It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding

16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255

17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• IGRP

18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?
• SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full
• SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# duplex full
• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex

19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
• EIGRP does not support VLSM.
• The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
• The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.

20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?
• Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
• Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully
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21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
• local router
• local Frame Relay switch
• remote router
• remote Frame Relay switch
• R3 has the following configuration:
• R3# show running-config
• –some output text omitted–
• interface serial0/0
• bandwidth 128
• ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
• encapsulation frame-relay
• frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?
• No clock rate assigned.
• There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
• An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
• The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword

23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
• The LMI type must always be manually configured.
• The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
• The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE

24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
• The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
• A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
• The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured

25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.
• Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
• It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR

26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?
• show interface bri0/0
• show isdn active
• debug isdn q921
• debug isdn q931
• debug ppp negotiation
• debug ppp authentication

27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)
• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
• PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
• PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection

28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
• establishes identities with a two-way handshake
• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
• control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
• transmits login information in encrypted format
• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
• makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
• They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
• They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
• They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link

30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
• 192.168.14.8
• 192.168.14.16
• 192.168.14.24
• 192.168.14.32
• 192.168.14.148
• 192.168.14.208

31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
• 1) fast forward
• 2) fragment free
• 3) store-and-forward
• 1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward
• 1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward
• 1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free

32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?
• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
• message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
• banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
• hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
• Øverst på formularen

33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
• RouterA(config)# router ospf
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0

35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
• TCP
• RIP
• CSMA/CD
• Ethernet

36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?
• a router with a serial interface
• a router with an S/T interface
• a router with a U interface
• an ISDN terminal adapter

37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
• The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
• An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
• A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device

38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
• data transport reliability
• best path determination
• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
• encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
• best-effort datagram delivery

39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
• 192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
• 192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
• This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
• This command is used to define a static route

40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• FTP
• SNMP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• DHCP

41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
• BECN
• DLCI
• DE
• FECN
• LMI
• Inverse ARP

42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?
• Router# show ip interfaces brief
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show cdp neighbors
• Router# show running-config
• Router# show protocols

43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
• router table
• topology table
• DUAL table
• CAM table
• ARP table

44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
• ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
• summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
• serial interface on router A
• serial interface on router B

45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
• the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
• the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
• the loopback with the highest IP address configured
• the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
• the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces

46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.16.134.0
• 172.16.134.32
• 172.16.134.48
• 172.16.134.47
• 172.16.134.63

47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)
• Router# show ip protocols
• Router# show version
• Router# show interfaces
• Router# show ip updates
• Router# show ip route

48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
• IP addresses
• subnet masks
• port numbers
• routed protocols
• routing protocols
• interfaces

49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address

50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?
• 200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
• 200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
• 200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240
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CCNA Exploration 4 – FINAL Exam Answers(B) Version 4.0

1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
• routable translation
• dynamic translation
• static translation
• port address translation

2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
• ip nat inside Raleigh overload
• ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh

3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
• static
• dynamic
• overload
• private
• public

4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
• 172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
• 20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29

5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
• Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
• 1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
• The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.

6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
• DHCP uses TCP.
• DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.

7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
• Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access

9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
• show ip dhcp server statistics
• show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
• debug ip dhcp binding

10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
• terminal adapter
• modem
• CSU/DSU
• PBX switch
• ISDN switch
• Frame Relay Switch

11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
• Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
• Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.

12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
• HDLC
• IPCP
• LAPB
• LAPD
• NCP
• SS7

13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
• X.25
• DSL
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• ISDN PRI

14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
• DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
• DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
• DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.

15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
• It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
• It is less expensive.
• It provides faster connection time.
• It provides less latency and jitter.

16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
• DLCI
• CO
• DCE
• DTE
• PRI
• BRI

17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
• A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
• Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
• A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
• A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.

18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
• Nothing. The router is already suitable.
• Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
• Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.

19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
• determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
• adapts information for use on a service provider’s network
• used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network

20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
• There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
• Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.

21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU
• ISDN Switch
• Frame Relay Switch

22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
• IPCP
• CDPCP
• Multilink
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23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
• username tampa florida
• hostname tampa password florida
• hostname tampa florida

24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
• performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
• uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
• sends a random challenge throughout the session

25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
• to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
• to translate domain names into IP addresses
• to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices

26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
• The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
• The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
• The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
• The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.

27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
• Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
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28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
• exchange of call setup and teardown messages
• PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
• protocol errors and statistics
• Layer 2 messages on the B channel

29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
• the enable password on the remote device
• the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
• the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device

30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
• 2
• 16
• 23
• 24
• 30
• 128

31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000

32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200

33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
• This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
• The encapsulation type is Cisco.
• The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
• The LMI type is Cisco.

34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
• Link Access Protocol – Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
• Logical Link Control
• Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
• Binary Synchronous Control protocol

35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225

36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
• show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
• show frame-relay interface
• show interfaces
• show ip route

37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
• serial cable missing
• interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing

38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
• The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
• The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
• The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
• A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
• Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
• The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
• LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
• Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.

40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
• The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
• The LMI type is ANSI (0x64).
• There is currently no congestion on the link.

41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
• map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
• provide error notification
• provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
• PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
• PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
• sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
• initiates a two-way handshake

44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider’s network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
• circuit-switched
• packet-switched
• frame-switched
• dedicated-switched lines
• lease-switched

45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
• A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
• A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.

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CCNA Exploration 4 – FINAL Exam Answers(A) Version 4.0

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
• CIR
• DE
• DLCI
• ISDN
• FRAD
• PVC

3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
• The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
• There is no clock present on the serial interface.
• The interface is shut down.
• RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.

5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
• The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
• The point is called the demarcation point.
• The point is typically located at the service provider’s central office.
• The point is located between the customer’s local area networks.

6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
• show interfaces serial 0/0
• show version
• show controllers serial 0/0
• show protocols serial 0/0
• show status serial 0/0

7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
• The DHCP server service is not enabled.
• The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
• The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
• All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
• A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
• A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
• An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)
• when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
• when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
• when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
• RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
• ITU-T Q.931
• ITU-T I.430
• ITU-T I.431

12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• create a full-mesh topology
• disable Inverse ARP
• use point-to-point subinterfaces
• use multipoint subinterfaces
• remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
• defines which addresses can be translated
• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
– IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
– RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
– RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
– The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
– The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
• Add a clock rate on RouterA.
• Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
• Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
• remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
• disable inverse ARP

16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 – dial number is looked up
2 – interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 – route to destination is determined
4 – call is made
• 1,2,3,4
• 1,3,2,4
• 2,3,1,4
• 2,1,3,4
• 3,2,1,4
• 3,1,2,4

17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
• NAT with DHCP
• Frame Relay
• HDLC with encryption
• HDLC with CHAP
• PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP

18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)
• create subinterfaces
• define the LMI type
• set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
• set the interface DLCI
• set the switch type
• specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF

19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
• use PPP multilink
• lower idle timer setting
• use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary “Type” field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
• HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
• Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
• The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
• There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
• The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
• The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
• The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.

22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.
• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
• dial string
• DLCI
• idle time out
• interesting traffic
• PVC

24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?
• Application Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Transport Layer
• Physical Layer, Network Layer

25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?
• The routers are configured for different encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.
• The circuit from WAN provider has failed.
• Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
• The circuit is functioning properly.

26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.

27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.

28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
• There is not a route to the remote router.
• The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
• The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
• Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
• DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
• broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
• active indicates that the ARP process is working.

30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.
• The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.

31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
• 172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
• 20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29

32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
• PPP authentication is not properly configured.
• No dialer map is configured.
• The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
• No interesting traffic is defined.
• No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.

33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?
• frame-relay pvc multipoint
• frame-relay pvc point-to-point
• encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
• frame-relay lmi-type ansi

34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
• X.25
• DSL
• ISDN
• cable modem

35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
• show dialer
• show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
• show interfaces serial0/0.1

36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
• Install and configure a PRI.
• Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
• Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
• Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
• Configure static NAT for all ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.
• Configure DHCP and static NAT.
• What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.

38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
• circuit-switched
• connection oriented
• OSI Layer 3
• packet-switched
• reliable

39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
• authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
• authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
• network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
• network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
• link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

CCNA Exploration 4 – Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
• cable types
• connector types
• interface identifiers
• DLCI for virtual circuits
• operating system versions

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport

3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
• incorrect encapsulation
• incorrect STP configuration
• incorrect ARP mapping
• incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
• information about the network design
• IP addressing allocation on the network
• requirements about the service provider setup
• requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
• expected performance under normal operating conditions

5.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
• Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
• Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
• Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
• TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
• The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
• Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
• The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
• The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
• The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
• The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
• Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the
• application servers in the data center.
• The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
• Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
• bottom up
• top down
• divide and conquer
• middle out

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
• baselining tool
• knowledge base
• protocol analyzer
• cable tester

10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
• cable analyzer
• network analyzer
• protocol analyzer
• knowledge base

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
• physical
• data link
• network
• application

12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
• narrowing the scope
• gathering symptoms from suspect devices
• analyzing existing symptoms
• determining ownership

13.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
• A carrier detect signal is present.
• Keepalives are being received successfully.
• Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
• Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
• The reliability of this link is very low.
• The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
• The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
• Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
• The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
• An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
• The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper
• layers.

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
• application
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical

16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport

http://learning-ccna.blogspot.com/

17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer
• application layer

19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
• All layers
• Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
• Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
• Layer 6 and Layer 7

http://learning-ccna.blogspot.com/

20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
• Determine fault.
• Get to know the user to build trust.
• Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
• Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
• Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
• Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

CCNA Exploration 4 – Module 7 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.

2. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk*
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief

3. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.

4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.

6. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• Forwarding
• learning
• listening

7. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.

8. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1*
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3

9. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.

12. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing

13. Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?
• STP*
• BGP
• RSTP
• HSRP

14. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator*
• a physical topology map

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

16. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
http://learning-ccna.blogspot.com/
17. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2

18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.*
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.

19. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer

20. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the “Role” column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.
http://learning-ccna.blogspot.com/
21. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• Designated

CCNA Exploration 4 – Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
• users are on a shared medium
• uses RF signal transmission
• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
• physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
• channel widths
• access method
• maximum data rate
• modulation techniques
• compression techniques

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
• use higher RF frequencies
• allocate an additional channel
• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
• reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
• use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
• cable
• DSL
• ISDN
• POTS

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?
• A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN clientsoftware.
• Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting asingle user environment.
• Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections usingPOTS.

6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
• accounting
• authentication
• authorization
• data availability
• data confidentiality
• data integrity

7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• ESP
• hashing algorithms
• smart cards
• WPA

8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• encryption
• encapsulation
• hashing
• passwords

9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
• AES
• DES
• AH
• hash
• MPLS
• RSA

10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
• Diffie-Hellman
• digital certificate
• pre-shared key
• RSA signature

11. Which statement describes cable?
• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
• The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
• Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
• Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at theteleworker’s site?
• a WiMAX tower
• a one-way multicast satellite
• a WiMAX receiver
• an access point connected to the company WLAN

13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
• supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
• supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
• operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?
• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
• Data is flowing downstream.
• Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
• The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network.
• Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
• Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installedon the edge of the network.
• Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
• Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
• All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
• AH
• L2TP
• ESP
• GRE
• PPTP

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
• ATM
• CHAP
• IPsec
• IPX
• MPLS
• PPTP

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
• a GRE tunnel
• a site-to-site VPN
• a remote-access VPN
• the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

19.

Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
• The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
• The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
• The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

CCNA Exploration 4 – Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
• blocked in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
• permitted in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
• packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
• source router interface
• destination router interface

3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
• by destination UDP port
• by protocol type
• by source IP address
• by source UDP port
• by destination IP address

4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
• close to the source
• close to the destination
• on an Ethernet port
• on a serial port

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
• Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
• The network administrator receives an error.
• Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web
• server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
• ISP Fa0/0 outbound
• R2 S0/0/1 inbound
• R3 Fa0/0 inbound
• R3 S0/0/1 outbound

11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
• Only named ACLs allow comments.
• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
• Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
• More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
• extended ACL
• reflexive ACL
• console logging
• authentication
• Telnet connectivity
• user account with a privilege level of 15

13.

Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
• It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
• It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
• It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the
• company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company.
• What type of ACL is most appropriate?
• dynamic
• port-based
• reflexive
• time-based

15.

Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
• No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
• Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
• The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
• The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
• Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
• Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
• Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true
• Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
• They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
• When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.

20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
• Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
• Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
• Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
• the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
• the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
• the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network
• address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
• 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
• 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
• Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
• The word “any” indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
• The word “host” corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
• A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.

24.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
• It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
• It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
• Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
• Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
• Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

26.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
• The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
• The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
• The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.

CCNA Exploration 4 – Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)
• Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.
• Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
• Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.
• Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.
• Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
• Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
• Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
• Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.
• A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
• Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
• reconnaissance
• access
• DoS
• worm
• virus
• Trojan horse

4. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
• DoS
• DDoS
• virus
• access
• reconnaissance

5. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
• The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.
• Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.
• Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
• Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
• Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?
• securing
• monitoring
• testing
• improvement
• reconnaissance

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)
• provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
• describe how the firewall must be configured
• document the resources to be protected
• identify the security objectives of the organization
• identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

8. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
• It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
• It communicates consensus and defines roles.
• It is developed by end users.
• It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
• It defines how to handle security incidents.
• It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

9. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
• By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
• DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.
• Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.
• The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
• The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

10. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
• It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
• It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.
• It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
• It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
• It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
• The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
• The authentication method is not configured correctly.
• The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
• The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

12. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
• The “mz” in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
• The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
• The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
• The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
• The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
• The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
• The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
• The TFTP server software has not been started.
• There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

14. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
• Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
• Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
• Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
• Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
• Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
• ROM monitor
• boot ROM
• Cisco IOS
• direct connection through the console port
• network connection through the Ethernet port
• network connection through the serial port

16.

Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?
• The password is sent in plain text.
• A Telnet session is established with R1.
• The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
• The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
• SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.
• SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
• SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
• SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
• Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
• Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
• Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
• Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
• Schedule antivirus scans.
• Schedule antispyware scans .
• Schedule training for all users.
• Schedule operating systems updates.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router.
• What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?
• SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
• SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.
• SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.
• SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the “ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco” statement in the configuration?
• to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
• to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
• to enable SSH encryption of traffic
• to create an IPsec tunnel

22.

Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
• The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
• The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
• The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
• The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.