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CCNA Discovery 2 – Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
• faster communication speeds
• improved physical security
• more resistant to hacker attempts
• centralized cable management
• less electrical usage

2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician’s site survey report? (Choose three.)
• unlabeled cables
• only two power outlets per wall in each room
• poor physical security of network devices
• horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters
• lack of UPS for critical devices
• two users sharing the same computer

3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
• serial cable
• rollover cable
• straight-through cable
• crossover cable
• patch cable
• console cable

4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
• any obsolete office equipment being stored
• all product keys for site license software
• any planned growth anticipated in the near future
• the memory requirements for installed application software

5.
1
Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
• hub
• router
• switch
• access point

6. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is “five-9s”. What is meant by this?
• A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.
• A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
• Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
• The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.
• The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.

7. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
• the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals
• the path that the data takes through a network
• the wireless signal coverage area
• the wiring closet and access point locations
• the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
• the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering

8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
• repeater
• hub
• router
• switch

9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
• to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
• to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment
• to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
• to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements

10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
• a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated
• a networking device with a modular physical configuration
• a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
• a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible

11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
• scalability
• manageability
• compatibility
• reliability

12. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
• An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
• ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management.
• An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures.
• ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.

13. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
• user workstations
• switches and routers
• fax machines
• network equipment racks
• the point of presence

• copier

14. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
• does not require leasing costs for service
• can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
• eliminates the need for data backup
• increases availability of help desk services
• does not require a Service Level Agreement

15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
• Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
• Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.
• Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
• Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
• Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.

16. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
• configure the servers and routers prior to delivery
• upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems
• investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
• document the final design for approval by the customer
• perform a site survey to document the existing network structure

17. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
• backbone area
• point of presence
• network distribution facility
• intermediate distribution frame

18.
2
to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
• A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
• A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight

19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
• Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.
• The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer.
• Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
• Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade.
• The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.

20. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• fiber optic

21. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
• MDF
• POP
• IDF
• IXP

April 26, 2009 Posted by | CCNA 2 - Chapter 3, CCNA Discovery 2 Version 4.0, Small-to-Medium Business, Working at a ISP | Leave a comment

Module 2 Exam – CCNA 2 Router and Routing Basics

1
Which keystrokes can be used to return to the privileged mode from the interface configuration mode?
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-Shift-6, then X
Ctrl-Z
Esc

2
Which connection method can be used to perform the initial configuration of a router?
use a serial connection of a computer connected to the console port of a router
telnet to the router through a serial port
use a vty port through the Ethernet interface
use a modem connected to the AUX port of the router

3
Which tasks can be performed in the ROM monitor mode? (Choose two.)
recover from system failures
create startup configuration files
recover from lost passwords
configure IP addresses on all router interfaces
perform high level diagnostics

4
What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the command buffer contents
the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded

5
Under what conditions does the router enter setup mode? (Choose three.)
immediately after issuing the command Router#erase start
after issuing the command Router#setup
during the initial configuration of a router
after deleting the backup configuration and reloading the router
after deleting the running configuration

6
Which keystroke is used to move to the beginning of a command line?
Ctrl-A
Ctrl-B
Esc-A
Esc-B
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-Z

7
Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
Set the command history buffer size.
Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

8
What information does the name of the IOS file provide to the network administrator? (Choose three.)
the amount of NVRAM required to run the image
the hardware platform the image runs on
the various software platforms the image can run on
special features and capabilities of the image
the bandwidth supported by the IOS
where the image executes from and if it has been compressed

9
When the router output is being viewed through a terminal program, which statements are true regarding the –More– prompt at the bottom of the router display? (Choose two.)
Press the Spacebar to display the next line.
Press the Spacebar to view the next screen.
Press the PgDn key to view the next screen.
Press the Enter key to display the next line.
Press the Enter key to view the next screen.

10
Which command takes precedence if the commands enable password and enable secret are both configured on a router?
enable password
enable secret
Neither. They are both enabled.
Neither. They cancel each other out.

11

Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?

1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC’s serial port
2) a straight through cable
3) the router’s console port
1) PC’s Ethernet port
2) a crossover cable
3) the router’s Ethernet port
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC’s serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router’s Ethernet port
1) PC’s Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router’s console port
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC’s serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router’s console port
1) PC’s Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router’s Ethernet port

12
A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
Telnet
modem

13
After the active IOS image has been loaded into RAM from flash memory, which commands could be used be used to display the file name of the active IOS? (Choose two.)
Router# show IOS
Router# show flash
Router# show nvram
Router# show version
Router# show startup-config
Router# show running-config

14
What does the command sh? return as output if issued at the Router# prompt?
all show commands allowed in privileged mode
all commands beginning with the letters sh
an incomplete command error message
an invalid command error message

15
Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

16
Which of the following statements concerning router interface modes are correct? (Choose three.)
User EXEC mode provides commands to monitor router operation.
Privileged EXEC mode only provides commands to change or configure router operation.
Password protected configuration modes can be accessed from either user EXEC or privileged EXEC modes.
On a router with the name Core1, the prompt indicating privileged EXEC mode is Core1#.
The command to enter privileged EXEC mode is Router# enable.
A username and password may be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.

17
What baud rate needs to be configured on terminal emulation software to allow a connection to the console port of a router?
2400
4800
9600
14200
38400

18
Cisco IOS software is separated into two levels as a security feature. What are those two levels? (Choose two.)
global
privileged
local
user
interface

19
What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
FLASH, TFTP, ROM

April 23, 2009 Posted by | CCNA 2, CCNA 2 - Chapter 3 | Leave a comment

CCNA 2 – Chapter 3

1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
• Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
• Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
• R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• sends subnet mask information in routing updates
• allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
• show ip route

5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
• EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
• the network is using a hub and spoke topology
• the network is using a flat design


7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
• hey send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
• shortest-path first calculations

10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
• The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
• OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
• increased security
• the administrator maintains control over routing

14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
• The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
• A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of “C”.

16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
• The administrative distance of this route is 1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
• The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
• The cost for this link has a value of 129.

19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
• OSPF can be used between the routers.

20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
• 3

21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
• The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

CopyRight : http://www.getccna.net

April 8, 2009 Posted by | CCNA 2 - Chapter 3 | Leave a comment

   

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